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In my
genealogy research using records of baptism (1700-1800) from Zacatecas and
Chihuahua, I found when a child was born out of wedlock, the child would take
the mother's last name. The father's name was never mentioned or listed,
only those of the godparents, maternal grandparents, and mother. The
mother's full name was always listed. Also, I don't know if this was true
for other parts of Mexico.
Good
luck.
Alberto Duarte
While looking at the International Genealogical
Index I came across an ancestor possibly having a child with a woman other
than his wife during the late 1700's. The child carried the father's
last name only (no mother's name attached at the end)and only the mother's
first name was listed. I was under the impression an illegitimate
child never used his father's last name, so this confused me.
I've
ordered a copy of the entry from the History Center, but it will take
weeks for me to receive it. In the meantime, does anyone know if
there were strict standards regarding an illegitimate child's use of a
father's last name? And also, why would only a first name be
listed for a mother? I see this all the time while perusing the
IGI.
Thanks,
Alicia
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