| |
|
A couple of my ancestresses were "hijas natural"
and had "padre no conocido". They had their mother's maiden names.
For example, my grandmother's grandmother was Petra Gomez whose madre was
Maria del Refugio Gomez but padre was no conocido.
My father's father birth record says he was hijo
natural of Dorotea Hernandez and then mentions the two male witnesses. On
my dad's birth certificate, the abuelos paternos were Pasqual Hernandez and
Dorotea Martinez. Then on my dad's BAPTISMAL record, it states the abuelos
paternos were Pasqual Hernandez and Dorotea Ramos. Go figure.
Marge:)
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, September 08, 2004 6:55
PM
Subject: [ranchos] Names
While looking at the International Genealogical Index I
came across
an ancestor possibly having a child with a woman other than
his wife
during the late 1700's. The child carried the father's last
name
only (no mother's name attached at the end)and only the mother's
first name was listed. I was under the impression an illegitimate
child never used his father's last name, so this confused me.
I've
ordered a copy of the entry from the History Center, but it
will take
weeks for me to receive it. In the meantime, does anyone
know if
there were strict standards regarding an illegitimate
child's use of a
father's last name? And also, why would only a
first name be
listed for a mother? I see this all the time while
perusing the
IGI.
Thanks,
Alicia
|
|
| |
by Date 
-