While looking at the International Genealogical Index I came across
an ancestor possibly having a child with a woman other than his wife
during the late 1700's. The child carried the father's last name
only (no mother's name attached at the end)and only the mother's
first name was listed. I was under the impression an illegitimate
child never used his father's last name, so this confused me.
I've ordered a copy of the entry from the History Center, but it
will take weeks for me to receive it. In the meantime, does anyone
know if there were strict standards regarding an illegitimate
child's use of a father's last name? And also, why would only a
first name be listed for a mother? I see this all the time while
perusing the IGI.
Thanks,
Alicia
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