Hello. During my research, I once found a record of an illegitimate
child just by chance. I was checking the baptisms in Atotonilco el
bajo/santa clara, Jalisco of children with the last name Cervantes.
Most of them were not related to me, but I found a girl whose last
name was Cervantes. she was the illegitimate daughter of a woman with
the last name Hernandez and of my greatgrandfather's brother Bacilio
Apodaca. However, she was not named neither Apodaca or Hernandez.
Why? Because in the record it showed that this child was not claimed
by the father, but by the paternal grandmother, Guadalupe Cervantes.
So, in this case, the child inherited the paternal's grandmother's
maiden surname.
I believe there's not a standard about naming illegitimate children,
since my second great grandfather Evaristo Ramirez kept the last name
of his father, even though he was a natural child.
--- In ranchos@yahoogroups.com, "alice_wissing" <alice_wissing@y...>
wrote:
> While looking at the International Genealogical Index I came across
> an ancestor possibly having a child with a woman other than his
wife
> during the late 1700's. The child carried the father's last name
> only (no mother's name attached at the end)and only the mother's
> first name was listed. I was under the impression an illegitimate
> child never used his father's last name, so this confused me.
>
> I've ordered a copy of the entry from the History Center, but it
> will take weeks for me to receive it. In the meantime, does anyone
> know if there were strict standards regarding an illegitimate
> child's use of a father's last name? And also, why would only a
> first name be listed for a mother? I see this all the time while
> perusing the IGI.
>
> Thanks,
>
> Alicia
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