When the Spaniards made converts of the Indios of Mexico they gave them
Spanish names. So am I correct that there are peoples of every Spanish
surname out there that can eventually trace their genealogy back to
where that name was "assigned" and then the trail would end because it
would be extremely difficult or impossible to find a written record of
the Indio names before conversion. . .OR. . .or do I have this all
wrong? Was it only first names that were assigned to them and then as
the Spaniards crossbred with the Indios those bi-racial children then
had a ligitimate [traceable] name that could be traced back to Spain?
How exactly did the names for the indios come about?
joseph
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