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Angie; Though I can see the logic of what you
say you may have read, I have never seen this to be the case in taking the
surname of the wife.
As you know, the child of Hector Garcia and
Rosa Mendez would be for example Carlita Garcia Mendez. I have never seen
a man change his name to Hector Mendez. It is not true in Mexico, Central
America or South America, is it true maybe in Spain or Portugal ? A
family name is very important and I have never seen a case where a man would
change his surname to that of his wife's father. I wonder where you read
this ? Traditionally the woman keeps her maiden name in that way even after
marriage.
I know about the variations in the spelling
of names. I have seen some very strange attempts to spell Indian names by
phonetics.
Anyway, I found your entry very enlightening
and will remember to keep it in mind as I look over the records from now
on. If you will tell me where you have seen this practice, it would help
me very much.
Jose L. Macias
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Monday, June 30, 2003 3:12 PM
Subject: [ranchos] Re: Naming
Patterns
I read somewhere, {and I can't remember where, but I tried
looking
for my source for this information}, that if the wife's family was
of
a higher status or surname was 'better' {in using measurements during
that time period}, then the males in the family took the wife's
surname which would then pass to their children. And the females
took the husband's surname which would get passed to their children
as
the secondary surname.
In terms of mispellings or spelling
variations. Again, I read
somewhere, the person recording the name
tended to be more educated
then the general people. Therefore, it would
have been 'beneath' him
to ask how to spell a name to someone who was less
educated them he.
The ability to read and write was not wide spread,
but more than
likely even those people who did know how to write, were
probably
still not asked the correct way to spell their name.
just
me two cents...
Angie
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